BAT Challenger 350 Practice Exam

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• The ISI standby power duration is approximately how long?
• If one wing tank has less than 1000 lb, what is the maximum allowable engine operation time?
• What is the Vmcg speed for flaps 10?
• What is the cooling period after three consecutive engine start cycles?
• Which statement is true regarding FMS navigation calculation with three satellites?
• If the main landing gear door is missing during the walkaround, which document determines remarks or exemptions which must be observed?
• How is a DME hold executed?
• Which manual contains comprehensive procedures for operating in cold weather?
• For engine start and environmental air, the bleed air from the APU is limited to what altitude?
• Which statement describes essential power loads?
• During towing with the nose gear, the chrome extension requirement for the NLG shock strut to allow towing at any angle is how many inches?
• The altitude and airspeed input to the IRU come from which subsystem?
• Which memory item is used to initiate a fire push for an APU fire?
• What is the VRA for the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• Which data source is not used by the IRU to measure inertial motion in three axes?
• What is the total fuel capacity with single-point pressure refueling and gravity refueling?
• What is the purpose of the AUX hydraulic pump?
• Which warning triggers the Master WARNING chime during a left engine fire?
• What are the memory item(s) for APU OVERTEMP?
• Which PRI stab trim functions are lost when selecting SEC trim?
• What computer monitors the bleed-air leak detection system?
• APR power initiated by the AUTO system is limited to how long?
• Which of the following is not heated when PROBES PBA ON?
• Where is the battery voltage indicated?
• What is the time duration of the batteries in flight with all generators inoperative?
• What action is used to actuate the Roll DISC lever during a Roll Control Jam?
• What cabin altitude triggers a caution light?
• Can the APU be used to heat the aircraft during an anti-ice application?
• What is the correct zero fuel weight value for the Challenger 350?
• What does an amber square with amber diagonal lines crossing through it indicate on the EICAS gear position display?
• What is the VMO (8000 to 29,475 ft) for the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• Is the autopilot able to operate normally in secondary trim?
• During CABIN ALTITUDE memory items, what is the required action for the Thrust Levers?
• During IRS alignment, which message indicates that taxi clearance is not allowed?
• APR power duration is limited to 10 minutes when initiated by the AUTO system.
• At what altitude will the half bank mode automatically engage?
• Where does the APU obtain fuel for operation?
• Which action is part of the windshear memory item?
• What are the memory item(s) for APU FIRE?
• For approximately how long do the PCUs provide rudder dampening against gust loads after hydraulic pressure is removed?
• VFE for flaps 10° is what value?
• Why are balance tabs installed?
• APR stands for what in the Challenger 350 engine system?
• What is the minimum altitude at which the autopilot may remain engaged during nonprecision approach operations?
• What advantage does the GPS have over the basic GPS navigation system when used with the satellite-based augmentation system (SBAS)?
• Which statement best describes the function of the safety valves?
• What provides rudder dampening after hydraulic pressure is removed?
• Must the minimum N1 be monitored with nacelle heat on?
• Balance tabs reduce pilot effort needed to move which surface?
• What indications show the nosewheel steering limit has been exceeded?
• MACH HOLD will adjust N1 within a ±3% of thrust lever position when which conditions are met?
• Which sources provide air for the air-conditioning PACK to operate?
• Which of the following is a memory item for normal brakes fail?
• What is the readjustment altitude for High Alt mode warning?
• Which is greater, the maximum ramp weight or the maximum takeoff weight?
• Why is there more fluid in the left reservoir than in the right?
• Which event specifically triggers EMERGENCY oxygen masks for all flight crew?
• Which component is powered to actuate the outflow valve?
• How many circuit breaker panels are installed on the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• What are the limitations in reference to the aircraft TAWS?
• What type of brakes does the Challenger 350 use?
• Which items are contained on the CVR control panel?
• What is the final action in the windshear memory item?
• Which statement is true about generator amperage limits?
• From where is the primary cabin lighting controlled?
• How many dual temperature sensors are in each wing in the wing and anti-ice system?
• In Stall memory items, what is the final action to perform?
• How many feet are added to cabin altitude to readjust for a High Alt mode caution light?
• With all three generators operating in flight, if the left generator drops offline, what automatically happens?
• What is the second memory item for L or R engine fire below V1?
• Normal flap extension from 0 to 30 should not exceed what time limit?
• What happens when the ENG FIRE switch is pressed?
• The APU powers which type of generator?
• How many IASC computers does the Challenger 350 have? (alternate wording)
• Which statement about the cockpit zone temperature sensor is correct?
• Which statement about the Challenger 350's airspeed limitations is true?
• Is another APU start attempt permitted after an unsuccessful start in the air?
• What is the maximum differential pressure on the ground?
• What are the memory item(s) for emergency evacuation?
• To what degree can the multifunction spoilers extend with control wheel input?
• What does a PTU stand for?
• What are the memory items for Overspeed?
• What symbols are used on the TCAS page to represent TCAS supplemental information to a target?
• If the aircraft is down to essential power only, how long will the batteries last?
• What are the selectable modes in the ATC radio submenu?
• Besides powering the gearbox-mounted generator, what is another purpose for the APU?
• Each IRU unit receives system initialization data from which source, and altitude and airspeed input from which source?
• How many stick pushers does the Challenger 350 have and where is it located?
• Is it possible that the surge valve may cause a noticeable hissing-type sound in the APU area?
• Which statement about APU fire suppression on the ground is true?
• If the aircraft is not in level flight, what unit signals the fuel computer with an accurate fuel reading?
• What are the fuel temperature limitations?
• How much fuel can be added using SPPR?
• Where is the cockpit zone temperature sensor located?
• How many main ejector pumps are installed?
• Which indicator on the EICAS shows a gear position disagreement with the commanded position?
• Multifunction displays show synoptic information.
• What is the maximum altitude at which the flaps can be extended?
• What is the VFE (flaps 20) for the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• What is the first memory item listed for gear bay overheat?
• In flight, engine anti-ice limitations include which of the following?
• The APU bleed valve controls airflow to the aircraft bleed-air system and protects the APU from _______.
• In Stall memory items, what is the third action to perform?
• If in flight with a generator, what is the maximum amperage for one generator?
• What result does the calculated trim setting achieve?
• What is zero fuel weight on the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• How many smoke detectors are installed on the Challenger 350 aircraft, and where is one located?
• Which valve is responsible for preventing compressor stall by venting air from the APU when needed?
• What is the pressurization limitation during takeoff and landing?
• What is the temperature range in the NORM mode?
• What is the VLE speed?
• Can the autopilot be re-engaged after pulling the roll disconnect?
• When does the CAS provide visual and aural alerts?
• During towing, torque links may be disconnected to permit towing at any angle, provided the NLG shock strut extension exceeds how many inches of visible chrome?
• Flight spoilers must not be extended in flight below which speed?
• Are normal brakes still operational in the event of a left and right hydraulic failure?
• How does the engine fire detection system function?
• Which two speeds are both listed as 250 KIAS?
• Which of the following is NOT monitored on the APU synoptic pages?
• Can spoilers and flaps be used at the same time?
• How many static wicks are installed on the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• What is the maximum amperage for one generator while in flight?
• If the left engine-driven hydraulic pump fails, which device repositions the landing gear?
• How many fuel pumps are installed, and what are their types?
• What is the minimum battery temperature for takeoff?
• After IRS alignment completes, where does the aircraft heading display?
• What are the memory item(s) for PACK LEAK?
• What are the memory items for a Rejected Takeoff?
• Which trim trims faster at cruise?
• The primary purpose of the APU load control valve is to protect the APU from what condition?
• How is rain removal from the windshields accomplished on the aircraft?
• When EMER LIGHTS are activated, which CAS message displays?
• Which statement best describes the APU's primary roles?
• The rudder travel limit confines rudder control surface movement as a function of what?
• What is the maximum amperage for two or three generators?
• What combination is required for the FMS to calculate a navigation solution?
• SLD acronym stands for which term?
• Which altitude triggers the cabin altitude warning light?
• Which masks receive a reduced rate of oxygen pressure?
• During a normal engine start, when does the DC fuel pump supply fuel to the engine-driven pump?
• What are the thrust reverser limitations?
• What is the VLO RET speed?
• Which hydraulic system powers the landing gear?
• What is the minimum altitude at which the autopilot may remain engaged during Category 1 ILS operations with glideslope angles between 3.5° and 4.5°?
• What does the Smart Landing (SL) function generate during approach and landing?
• When must all flight crew wear oxygen masks with EMERGENCY selected?
• How is the APU bleed valve controlled?
• What is a bent tab?
• Which surface does the left yoke operate when pulling the pitch disconnect handle?
• Which system(s) are powered by the right hydraulic system?
• To which component are the dual detection loops in the APU enclosure connected?
• What is the correct memory-item sequence for CABIN ALTITUDE?
• What is the altitude limitation for starting the left engine on the ground using APU bleed air?
• Which of the following is the maximum zero fuel weight?
• When is the emergency locator transmitter automatically activated?
• How many APU mechanical fuel pumps are installed?
• Why is the right battery turned on first?
• Which landing gear have weight-on-wheels proximity sensors?
• What are the three limitations regarding the use of flight spoilers?
• Which color indicates a manual landing altitude setting on the readout?
• What powers the lower rudder PCU during a right system failure?
• How many ice detectors are installed on the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• Are the leading edges heated?
• If the left generator fails while two others remain online, which generator would power the buses?
• What happens when the oxygen system is in DEPLOY position?
• True or false: The bleed valves are pneumatically operated and electrically controlled.
• In flight, when the ICE DETECTED CAS message is on, what action is required for wing anti-ice?
• GPS information is provided to which trio of systems?
• The Challenger 350 configuration includes how many ozone converters?
• What are the memory item(s) for L or R PYLON BLEED LEAK?
• What is the maximum negative differential pressure?
• What is the main difference between the AUTO and DEPLOY positions in the oxygen system?
• Second memory item for cabin/cockpit fire, smoke, fumes?
• On the synoptic page, what color indicates a parameter exceeds the established limits?
• In a Roll Control Jam, control should be transferred to the pilot on which side?
• What happens when the L ENG FIRE switch is pressed?
• Which statement correctly identifies the primary flight controls?
• What backup information does the ISI supply to the pilot?
• How many hydraulic pumps are installed in the system, and what are their types?
• In L/R Engine Fire below V1 memory items, which item is the last step?
• In order to transfer fuel, the XFER switch must be selected to ________ and one of the pumps selected to _________.
• Which speed is shared by both VLO EXT and VLE?
• If the elevator split exceeds which degree, amber ELEVATOR SPLIT caution appears?
• During the engine fire emergency procedure, after engine shutdown, how many seconds should elapse before the first bottle is discharged?
• In the Overspeed memory items, which is the first action to perform?
• The windshields and cockpit windows heating is powered by which source?
• Can the stick pusher be overpowered?
• In L/R Engine Fire above V1 memory items, which action occurs first?
• Why can engines only operate for 30 minutes with less than 1000 pounds of fuel per side?
• What are the memory item(s) for TRIM AIR LEAK?
• What is the minimum fuel quantity for a go-around?
• How long does the standby instrument battery power the ISI when there are no generators online?
• What conditions exist while a pilot is depressing the MSW?
• What is the MMO (above 29,475 ft) for the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• On a glidepath angle of 3.5° or less, what is the lowest altitude that the autopilot may be used?
• Which statement about DCMP power sources is true?
• What is the maximum zero fuel weight for the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• Which flight computer controls the outboard flight spoilers?
• Is antiskid operational when using the park/emergency brake?
• How many electrical boost pumps are installed?
• When the emergency light switch is set to ON, what illuminates and displays?
• Which value is not a listed VFE value for any flap setting?
• On the Challenger 350, which areas are equipped with a fire extinguishing system?
• What is the memory item for overspeed?
• What are the limitations for using wing anti-ice on the ground?
• What are the memory item(s) for TAWS Aurals/PULL UP?
• In AUTO, at what cabin altitude will the EPAV deploy the passenger masks?
• When extended, what are the extension angles for the ground spoilers and the multifunction spoilers?
• VFE for flaps 30° is what value?
• Where is the hydraulic EDP located?
• What is the maximum altitude at which the landing gear may be extended?
• What indicates the CVR test status on the control panel?
• What is the temperature threshold for icing conditions in flight (TAT)?
• What causes the auxiliary hydraulic system to power the lower rudder PCU?
• In which mode is the mode S transponder unable to send replies?
• The APU should not be started above which indicated airspeed?
• What indicates that the landing altitude was set automatically?
• What is the minimum flight weight for the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• Can the Challenger 350 aircraft hold in icing conditions with flaps extended?
• Which system component directly coordinates anti-ice protection across both the engine and windshields?
• Under which condition does the PTU operate?
• What computer controls the anti-ice protection system?
• In ALT OFF mode, the Mode S transponder reports neither Mode C nor Mode S?
• Which yoke controls the ailerons after a roll disconnect is activated?
• If the emergency lights are armed, will they automatically illuminate when the right main bus loses electrical power?
• What is the first memory item for L/R Engine Fire below V1?
• Where are the fire extinguishers located on the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• Is operation of the APU during fluid de-icing/anti-icing allowed?
• Which component controls engine anti-ice functions?
• Yaw damper inoperative altitude: Is 31,000 ft the maximum altitude?
• What is the first memory item for L or R engine fire below V1?
• What are the three sections of each Challenger 350 fuel tank?
• What is the VLE for the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• GPS provides information to which three systems?
• Mach trim is a function of which trim?
• The wing anti-ice system contains how many dual temperature sensors per wing?
• Which type of alerts are produced when a red or amber CAS malfunction is detected?
• When should the anti-ice systems be turned on?
• When the roll disconnect is pulled, which control surfaces does the left yoke operate?
• What is the minimum pavement width required for a 180° turn with a 5-ft safety margin?
• What function is available in Manual mode?
• What is the memory item for pitch control jam?
• During towing, what is the maximum nosewheel travel in degrees left or right before disconnection?
• Which two airspeeds share the same maximum operating speed of 250 KIAS?
• What is the maximum takeoff weight?
• Where is the crash ax located?
• Which statement correctly describes the R FUEL PUMP ON (A) message?
• What are the memory items for Roll or Yaw Control Axis Uncommanded Motion?
• Which hydraulic fluid types are approved for Challenger 350?
• Which statement is NOT a consequence of pressing the ENG FIRE switch?
• Which power source does SPPR use?
• Which component is used to monitor landing gear position for reporting to the pilots?
• What is the maximum tire speed?
• Which electrical source powers the left DCMP?
• What does the Smart Landing function monitor?
• What is the minimum permissible temperature in manual mode?
• HTF 7350 engine flat rating is 7323 lb. Which option correctly states this value?
• Is the engine spinner anti-iced?
• What does the amber EMERGENCY EXIT caution on the EICAS indicate?
• Which component provides rudder dampening after hydraulic pressure is removed?
• The takeoff CAS message inhibit period ends at what altitude or after what time?
• Which air sources can provide air to the packs?
• What is the temperature range in the manual mode?
• Which spoiler panels move on the ground?
• How many DC motor pumps are installed in the hydraulic system?
• Which flight computer controls the inboard flight spoilers?
• In case of failure of both the left and right hydraulic systems, accumulators in both hydraulic brake systems provide pressure for at least how many brake applications?
• At what altitude is prolonged use of passenger oxygen masks not recommended?
• In flight, icing conditions are defined as a TAT of 10°C or below with visible moisture. This statement best describes icing conditions for wing anti-ice operation.
• What is the difference in capacity between the left and right reservoirs?
• Can the pilot override the yaw damper command?
• Is prolonged use of passenger masks above 25,000 ft recommended?
• How long will the standby instrument power the ISI?
• What is the maximum altitude at which the APU provides bleed air?
• Second memory item for engine failure below V1?
• What is the VMO (up to 8,000 ft) for the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• During Roll Control Jam, which lever is used to actuate the roll control?
• With air temperatures below -30°C, the minimum oil temperature limit for takeoff is 15°C provided an icing inhibitor is used and cold weather operations are followed.
• What is included in the Challenger 350 aircraft emergency equipment?
• What should be done if the autopilot fails?
• The maximum landing gear retraction speed is specified as 200 KIAS. Which of the following is the correct value?
• What is the maximum negative pressure when defueling?
• What are the memory item(s) for L or R Batt overheat?
• Which component is powered by the left hydraulic system?
• Into which manifold does the ground air cart feed?
• In L/R Engine Fire above V1 memory items, which action is the third step?
• What is the VFE (flaps 30) for the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• Which electrical source powers the right DCMP?
• What indicates that a Nav radio has failed?
• If R BLEED LEAK is present, what should be done to L Bleed?
• To what PSI is intermediate pressure regulated?
• Thrust reversers are allowed to be used in which condition?
• What is the mechanical limit of rudder deflection for the yaw damper system?
• Automatic MFD map mode is commanded when the terrain alert is signaled within what range of the sensed terrain?
• Which items are heated when selecting the PROBES pushbutton annunciator ON?
• What prevents fuel from traveling outboard during low-wing maneuvers?
• Which item is Evacuation Command in engine fire below V1?
• Which statement about autopilot dependence on flight guidance computers is correct?
• What is the fourth memory item for L or R engine fire above V1?
• Which items are provided by the ISI as backup information?
• To what PSI is high-pressure bleed air regulated?
• Which statement about trim air usage is true?
• Which buses are powered in flight with a single generator online?
• At what airspeed does yaw damping smoothly disable until weight is off the wheels?
• Through the rudder pedals, how much nosewheel steering authority does the pilot have?
• What color does the red beacon light turn to when the aircraft senses weight off wheels?
• What must the crew do if a fire extinguisher is discharged in the flight compartment?
• Pressing the CAS switch once on the CCP has which effect?
• What are the limitations for trim air usage?
• Where is the CB2 circuit breaker panel located?
• When does automatic APR activate?
• What are the limitations on fuel transfer?
• Which CAS warning message illuminates for a left engine fire?
• In which areas are maintenance interphone panels located?
• Which statement describes the amber and cyan ICE DETECT CAS messages?
• Do primary trim and secondary trim travel at the same rate?
• If the Mach trim is inoperative and the autopilot is engaged, is speed limited?
• Takeoff is permitted when bulk fuel temperature is what value, according to the provided data?
• At cabin altitude above 35,000 ft, the crew oxygen supply is which of the following?
• Can Air Source to Trim Air Only be selected on the ground?
• What primary flight controls are hydraulically powered?
• How many stick shakers does the Challenger 350 have and where are they located?
• How much fuel can be added using overwing refueling?
• Which statement about the 95% position error requirement is true?
• What is the first memory item listed for gear bay overheat?
• What is the cooling interval between the first and second ground start attempts?
• During CABIN ALTITUDE memory items, what action is required for the Autopilot?
• Following an unsuccessful start or a hung start of the APU in flight, can a second start attempt be made after observing a one-minute cooling period?
• What is the maximum speed for starting the APU?
• Which of the following components is powered by the left hydraulic system?
• Pitch uncommanded motion memory item?
• From where does the refueling panel obtain power?
• What is the first step in the TAWS Aurals/PULL UP memory item?
• The PMA supplies power to the FADEC at and above 45% N2. Choose the correct threshold.
• What power source is required to use SPPR?
• What is the purpose of the % MAC figure after weight and balance is completed?
• How many generators are capable of powering the aircraft electrical system in flight?
• Are the leading edges of the horizontal stabilizer heated?
• If NAV mode is active and the navigation source is lost, what FD mode does it default to?
• Does vertical deviation and scale display on the lower part of the PFD?
• What are the memory item(s) for windshear?
• In a Rejected Takeoff, which action is listed first among the memory items?
• During which phase is fuel transfer prohibited?
• Is there artificial feel to the rudder?
• Which item is PARK/EMER BRAKE SET in engine fire below V1?
• Can the autopilot be engaged independently from the yaw damper?
• What is the transient limit for all generators?
• What is the maximum positive differential pressure?
• The ice protection system includes how many independent ice detectors/microprocessors?
• Which action describes transferring control to the unjammed side during a pitch control jam?
• Which trim trims faster at takeoff?
• What is the memory item for WING OVERHEAT?
• Under the stated fuel restrictions, if one wing has less than 1000 lb, what is the minimum total fuel required?
• The permanent magnet alternator (PMA) supplies power to the FADEC at and above _______.
• Minimum oil temperature required to operate engines above ground idle?
• When does the automatic 'Pull up Pull down' function operate?
• From which hydraulic system does the PTU obtain pressure?
• The primary trim has which function(s) that the secondary trim does not have?
• What is the autopilot minimum use height for climb, enroute, or descent?
• How does manual reversion work?
• Which item is NOT a component of the oxygen system?
• Second memory item for rejected takeoff?
• Which surface does the right yoke operate when pulling the pitch disconnect handle?
• During which phase of flight must the fuel XFER PBA be selected closed?
• For an APU fire in flight, which statement about indications and automatic actions is correct?
• Which of the following lists the primary flight controls?
• Is travel time the same using ALT flaps compared with using normal flaps?
• Can the pilot override the yaw damper command?
• Where are the spoiler RVDTs located?
• What is the maximum zero fuel weight?
• What happens when the LG PULL handle is raised in flight?
• For Jet A, at what bulk fuel temperature is takeoff prohibited?
• What does the cyan ICE DETECTED (A) EICAS message indicate?
• What valve divides the left manifold from the right manifold?
• In the event of a red NORM BRAKES FAIL (W) EICAS message, braking can be achieved by pulling on which control?
• What is the normal operating pressure of the hydraulic system?
• Which item is not listed as part of the Challenger 350 emergency equipment?
• Where is oil filtered and cooled?
• Where is Delta P displayed?
• What memory item(s) apply for a red HYD PRESS LOW (W) CAS message?
• What type of air is used for anti-ice?
• Where is the MAN control located to set landing altitude manually?
• What is the third memory item for L or R engine fire below V1?
• The nosewheel steering actuator is powered by which hydraulic system?
• What is the third memory item for L or R reverser unsafe below V1?
• At cabin altitude above 35,000 ft, what does the crew mask supply regardless of other control settings?
• What is the main purpose of the PTU?
• Which is the first action in Cabin/Cockpit Fire, Smoke, Fumes memory items?
• An up or down arrow appears only when the target aircraft is climbing or descending at more than ________?
• What is the maximum altitude for APU start?
• What type of power is normally used by the pushbutton switches on the exterior and interior of the aircraft to close the passenger door?
• When can the flight spoilers be extended to EMER?
• How does manual reversion work?
• How and where is a new CAS message generated after you hide previous messages using the CAS switch on the CCP?
• What is the main function of the AFCS?
• Which hydraulic system powers the outboard elevator PCUs?
• What computer controls the outflow valve?
• The proximity sensing system consists of which two subsystems?
• Can spoilers and flaps be used at the same time?
• The APU provides air conditioning and pressurization. Which system does this primarily support?
• What are the memory items for a red NORM BRAKES FAIL CAS message?
• Which surfaces constitute the secondary flight controls?
• Primary flight displays integrate which types of information?
• When starting the APU to support engine start, what is the maximum altitude allowed?
• During towing, nosewheel swivel through the range of ________ of each side of center is possible, without disconnecting the nosewheel steering torque links.
• Which device is energized first to prevent uncommanded APU start?
• While on the ground, which electrical buses are powered with only the APU online?
• During an overspeed, what is the final memory item action?
• Are normal braking and nosewheel steering available in flight?
• What is the maximum certified operating altitude for the APU?
• What is the purpose of the safety valves?
• What is the maximum altitude the landing gear may be extended in the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• What are the selectable flap positions?
• Normal takeoff power is limited to how many minutes?
• What is the VFE (flaps 10) for the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• Assuming both engine run switches are off, both fuel pumps in the automatic mode, and the APU knob selected to RUN, what EICAS message should appear?
• Which manual contains information on de-icing fluid?
• After a right hydraulic system failure, which statements about spoilers is true?
• Is the maximum altitude for starting the APU the same as the maximum altitude for APU generator use?
• For what is high-pressure bleed air used?
• Under which condition would the PACK operate on the ground?
• What are the SPPR pressure limits?
• When activated, how long do the PBEs generate oxygen?
• How many lines comprise the memory items for the red GEAR BAY OVERHEAT (W) message?
• What altitude is the APU generator allowed to operate up to?
• DME information is used to determine which of the following approximately?
• Which statement correctly pairs an altitude-based speed with its value?
• What is the heat source for the wings?
• With the torque link connected, what is the maximum degree of nose gear rotation left or right of center?
• Landing gear downlock safety pins are provided for the ______ landing gear assembly and the left and right ______ landing gear assemblies.
• What is the maximum zero fuel weight in pounds for the Challenger 350?
• Which system(s) are powered by the auxiliary hydraulic system?
• TAWS windshear function is in which mode?
• What items in the aircraft are powered by the left and right AUX buses?
• Which statement correctly describes VFE values for flaps 10 and 20?
• Which computer is identified as controlling the roll spoilers?
• In Stall memory items, what is the second action to perform?
• What accompanies warning messages indicating immediate action is required?
• What cabin altitude triggers a warning light?
• What is the maximum amperage for one generator while on the ground?
• How many pumps are engine-driven and DC motor combined in the hydraulic system?
• Where are the maintenance interphone panels located?
• With spoilers in the MAX position and flaps extending to the 20° position, the aircraft may exhibit what?
• If the passenger door is open, when does a CAS white PASSENGER DOOR message turn amber?
• Single-point pressure refueling is limited to what psig?
• Which flight control surfaces are locked with the gust lock?
• Which spoiler panels are used for lift dumping?
• Minimum pavement width to conduct a 180° turn?
• What assists the collector tanks in maintaining a full level of fuel?
• Which statement best explains when the Flight Director command bars appear on both PFDs?
• What does each IRU contain to measure inertial motion in three axes?
• When using ALT flaps, how does their travel rate compare to normal flaps at the FLAPS RATE LOW setting?
• How is the flight path vector tuned?
• How is the landing altitude normally set on the aircraft?
• Where is the anti-ice control panel located?
• Which bottle should be discharged to the APU during the APU fire emergency procedure?
• Which components are included in the Proximity Sensing System (PSS)?
• What is the maximum speed at which the landing gear may be in the down-and-locked position?
• What occurs when the fire switch is pushed?
• What are the memory items for Pitch Axis Uncommanded Motion or Trim Clacker?
• From where do the left and right DCMPs obtain power?
• What are the memory items for an APU Fire on the Ground?
• At what speed does the takeoff CAS message inhibit feature activate?
• Which factor is the primary reason engines can operate only 30 minutes when per-side fuel is under 1000 lb?
• What are the cooling time limitations for APU starts on the ground?
• Which ATC radio submenu mode is used for self-test?
• What is the memory item for roll/yaw uncommanded motion?
• Which action is a memory item for pitch control jam?
• The APU operates the gearbox-mounted generator, supplies bleed air for air conditioning and pressurization, and _______.
• Where is the outflow valve located?
• What are the VFE airspeeds for flaps 10°, 20°, and 30° (in that order)?
• What are the limitations with flight spoiler use?
• The VRA value is given as 265 KIAS with a distance of 0.75 miles. Which option represents that distance in miles?
• What is the maximum altitude the aircraft can fly with the yaw damper inoperative?
• What is the maximum altitude that the APU GEN can be used?
• What does the EFIS consist of?
• What is the maximum landing weight for a Challenger 350 aircraft?
• What is the first memory item for L or R engine fire above V1?
• If power is lost to an engine anti-ice valve, what does the valve do?
• At what cabin altitude will the crew oxygen masks automatically deliver 100% oxygen under pressure?
• What is the memory item for wing anti-ice conditions such as a leak or overheat?
• What is the memory item for stall?
• What is the guarded EMER DEPRESS PBA used for?
• What are the three modes of operation for the mask oxygen system?
• How much fluid do the left and right reservoirs contain?
• What happens when the takeoff CAS message inhibit period ends?
• What is the maximum landing gear retraction speed?
• Crew oxygen masks are certified to what altitude?
• PCU is an acronym for which term?
• APR activation requires a differential N2 of what percentage?
• During emergency evacuation, which step powers down the batteries?
• Where is the APU remote cutoff switch located?
• What displays when the IRS alignment process is complete?
• What is the limitation for using FMS performance speeds?
• Bent tab is positioned on the trailing edge of which surface to minimize upfloat at high speeds?
• Which system provides landing gear position monitoring?
• Which statement best describes the effect of the Proximity Sensing Electronic Unit (PSEU) after takeoff?
• What is one of the primary uses of APU bleed air?
• What is the maximum amperage on the GPU?
• Where is the cabin zone temperature sensor located?
• In L/R Engine Fire below V1, which step sets PARK/EMER BRAKE?
• What should be done to APU BLEED during bleed-leak procedures?
• What powers the emergency lights?
• In a Roll Control Jam, how is control transferred to a pilot?
• How is the outflow valve actuated?
• Which speed corresponds to the VLO RET parameter for the Challenger 350?
• Which altitude triggers the cabin altitude caution light?
• How many moving parts are in a jet pump?
• How many fuel tanks does the Challenger 350 have, and how are they divided?
• Which flight phase is associated with the CAS message inhibit period?
• What is the memory item for L or R engine exceedance?
• Which surface is controlled by the right yoke when pulling the pitch disconnect handle?
• When is the wing anti-ice system not needed in flight?
• What is minimum flight weight on the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• When does the APU surge valve extract air from the APU?
• What is the maximum tire speed?
• Delta P is displayed on which cockpit displays?
• What is the maximum altitude at which the APU generator can be used?
• Static discharge devices count for the Challenger 350: how many are installed?
• The FADEC is responsible for which function in the anti-ice system?
• The ______ panel allows the selection of the APU as the bleed-air source.
• Where are the two ice detectors installed on the Challenger 350?
• SECU stands for which of the following?
• Are all the multifunctional spoilers operative after a right hydraulic system failure?
• During CABIN ALTITUDE memory items, what should be done with the Flight Spoilers?
• RVDT stands for what term?
• What does the PTU power?
• What conditions must be met for GROUND SPOILER deployment?
• If air data altitude is unavailable, what is the minimum number of satellites required for navigation solution?
• What indicates SLD icing conditions?
• Within what temperature range may engines be operated from idle up to but not including CLB power?
• Which condition triggers wing anti-ice ON in icing conditions?
• To erase data from the cockpit voice recorder, which conditions must be met?
• In AUTO, the oxygen system adjusts flow based on what parameter?
• What is the maximum airspeed to start the APU?
• For takeoff, a fuel system icing inhibitor must be used when bulk fuel temperatures are below _______.
• Brake cooling times must be derived from which section to support takeoff performance calculations?
• What heats the fuel?
• What is the minimum altitude at which the autopilot may remain engaged during Category 1 precision approach operations?
• Does the fuel transfer valve need to be opened to refuel?
• How many ozone converters are installed in the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• Which color lamp accompanies the CVR TEST function on the control panel?
• Which window is heated by ESS power only?
• What is the second memory item for L or R reverser unsafe above V1?
• With temperatures at or below ______, follow the oxygen system recommended storage procedures if the aircraft is parked for an extended period.
• What unit is used for autopilot minimum altitude values?
• If the primary trim is inoperable, is the configuration trim still available?
• What is the maximum operating altitude for JP-4 or JET B fuel?
• The air drawn by the fuel venting system's right wind intake comes from which tanks?
• When the roll disconnect is pulled, which control surfaces does the right yoke operate?
• What are the limitations for engine anti-ice on the ground?
• What is the VLO RET for the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• What are the limitations for using wing anti-ice in flight?
• What does the PACK provide?
• Oil temperature range from idle up to but not including CLB power is
• Half-bank mode engagement altitude statement true or false: it engages at 31,600 ft.
• What is the memory item for wing anti-ice leak?
• In L/R Engine Fire in flight memory items, which is the second item?
• What are the components of the oxygen system?
• Which statement about IP air is correct?
• Which value is within spec for high-pressure bleed air (36 ±3 psi)?
• Which bottle is used for APU fires?
• What is the automatic landing altitude return-to-base criteria?
• Which aileron has trim tabs?
• What is the maximum operating altitude for the APU?
• How many IASC computers does the Challenger 350 have?
• If the APU is used to start engines and provide environmental air, its operation is limited by which altitude value?
• In addition to hand flying with raw data or using the flight director command bars, what is another method to control the aircraft?
• Which component provides antiskid protection on the main wheels down to 10 knots?
• What should be done if the autopilot fails?
• How many water sumps are installed?
• What is the engine designation for the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• Through the tiller, how much steering authority does the pilot have?
• Which of the following is NOT provided by the ISI as backup information?
• During APU start, the right battery powers the APU starter.
• What is the main function of the AFCS?
• Automatic power reserve (APR) provides 7323 lb of thrust up to _______.
• Which pressure value is within spec for intermediate pressure (50 ±3 psi)?
• At what maximum altitude does the engine start envelope begin?
• HTF 7350 (AS907-2-1A) is flat rated at _______.
• Which of the following is a memory item for a red NORM BRAKES FAIL CAS message?
• Air drawn by the right wind intake for the fuel venting system originates from which tanks?
• If a series of defective components causes the available hydraulic pressure to decrease to 0, can the rudder be controlled?
• What is the in-flight amperage limit when operating with a single generator online?
• The fuel system icing inhibitor must be used for takeoff when bulk fuel temperatures are below which temperature, unless cold weather procedures are followed?
• In L/R Engine Fire below V1 memory items, which item corresponds to arming the first fire extinguishing bottle?
• The brake control unit (BCU) provides antiskid protection down to how many knots on each main wheel?
• Regarding wheel brakes, what must be calculated before takeoff following a rejected takeoff?
• Do multifunction displays show synoptic information?
• During startup and shutdown, what power source provides the FADEC?
• Difference in pounds between maximum ramp weight and maximum landing weight?
• Which statement about autopilot operation is correct?
• The CDU provides tuning control to which radios?
• Which statement correctly describes the ICE DETECT CAS message color?
• Which of the following is NOT powered by the left and right AUX buses?
• Under what circumstances should the flight crew attempt to overpower the autopilot?
• Which statement about the DEPLOY position is correct?
• What are the memory items for Stall?
• Which of the following numbers matches the maximum tire speed?
• In which mode selection does the Mode S transponder report neither Mode C nor Mode S?
• Which is the second item in the APU FIRE memory sequence?
• With air temperatures below -30°C, the minimum oil temperature limit for takeoff is 15°C provided an icing inhibitor is used and cold weather operations are followed.
• What is the minimum bulk fuel temperature using Jet A?
• Can the Challenger 350 take off or land from a gravel runway?
• What is the primary role of the distribution system in the oxygen system?
• What indicates that the landing altitude was set manually?
• Flight spoilers must not extend below which altitude?
• Minimum oil temperature to operate engines above ground idle?
• How many fire bottles are installed on the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• What are the memory items for Pitch Control Jam?
• What is the memory item for WING ANTI-ICE LEAK?
• Which synoptic pages monitor the APU system and services?
• How many scavenge pumps are installed?
• What is used for anti-icing of the wing leading edge and engine intake cowls?
• Which hydraulic system normally extends and retracts the landing gear?
• Which combination of air sources can supply air to the air-conditioning PACK?
• In L/R Engine Fire above V1 memory items, which action is performed second?
• What is the memory item for roll control jam?
• Which control would you use to erase CVR data?
• Where are the oxygen duration tables located?
• For stall, which throttle position is listed as a memory item?
• How many independent ice detectors/microprocessors are in the ice and rain protection system?
• Normal takeoff power duration is limited to 5 minutes.
• What is the gravity refueling capacity?
• Which areas of the Challenger 350 aircraft are monitored with fire detection?
• Which flight computer controls the outboard flight spoilers?
• Under what ground condition must the PACK be operating?
• Which of the following indicates a left engine fire?
• What is the minimum go-around fuel quantity per side?
• How many feet are added to cabin altitude to readjust for a High Alt mode warning light?
• Can both fire extinguisher bottles be discharged into the APU compartment?
• Zone 2 in cockpit lighting corresponds to which area?
• Which items are displayed as airspeed information on the PFD?
• Under which SAT condition is the icing condition exception applied for wing anti-ice in flight?
• What combination of indicators accompanies a warning requiring immediate action?
• To enable fuel transfer, the XFER switch must be set to which position?
• When is the TAT probe heated under PROBES PBA ON?
• Can the APU be used during anti-icing and de-icing procedures?
• Zone 4 includes which area?
• Which fuel pump delivers fuel under pressure to the APU fuel control unit?
• Which REFS page is used to tune the flight path vector?
• On the ground, how is the APU remotely shut down?
• Which computer commands the roll spoilers to move?
• In flight, when does the DC fuel pump come on automatically?
• What is the correct sequence for L or R bleed leak memory items?
• What are the memory items for a red GEAR BAY OVERHEAT (W) message?
• Which of the following is true about autopilot and secondary trim?
• VFE for flaps 20° is what value?
• Which statement correctly describes the ground differential limit?
• The FMS is prohibited for navigation in which latitudinal regions?
• In the environmental control system, the PACK supplies conditioned air to which spaces?
• When the aircraft is on the ground and the cargo door is not closed and fully locked, and the left engine run switch is in RUN, what indication is displayed on the EICAS?
• What type of air is used for pressurization?
• Which statement about weight specifications is true?
• What actions prevent hydraulic fluid migration while setting the parking brake?
• Second memory item for engine failure above V1?
• Which system powers the right thrust reverser?
• Zone 1 in cockpit lighting includes which components?
• How many APU start attempts are allowed and what is the cooling time between attempts?
• Which battery powers the APU starter during APU start?
• What is the VLO EXT speed?
• Brake cooling times charts are located in which document and section?
• What data does DME compare and decode?
• While in flight, which electrical buses are powered with only one generator online?
• What is the VLO EXT for the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• Which component disables both normal braking and nosewheel steering after takeoff?
• Which fire extinguisher bottle is used for APU fires?
• What type of hydraulic fluid is used in the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• How many safety valves does the Challenger 350 aircraft have?
• Can the yaw damper be engaged independently from the autopilot?
• In AUTO mode, at approximately what altitude do the passenger masks deploy?
• What power source heats the windshields?
• Why do the flight directors display flight guidance cues on the attitude indicators?
• Which pairing of refueling method and maximum fuel addition is correct?
• What is the proper condition for accurately checking the brake wear indicator pins during preflight?
• What does a green AVAIL message on the electrical panel indicate?
• If the APU RPM is below 30 percent after 30 seconds, what should you do?
• In dual engine flameout, what is the airspeed?
• When thrust levers in CRZ or CLB, the engines will sync to N1 or N2 when they are within _______.
• What is the memory item for Roll/Yaw Axis Uncommanded Motion?
• Which statement about ground air cart and manifolds is true?
• What is the memory item for L or R wing overheat?
• Ground spoilers extend to what angle when deployed?
• In dual engine flameout, which item addresses crew oxygen masks?
• In RNP airspace, the FMS position error should be less than the RNP value ____% of the time.
• When NAV mode is being used and the navigation source is lost, which FD mode does it default to?
• Which generator normally shares the load with the APU generator?
• Where is the underwater locator device located?
• What does the MultiScan radar use to create threat displays?
• Where is the oxygen service point located?
• How is the wing anti-ice air discharged overboard?
• Which items are heated using electrical DC power?
• Do both ailerons have trim tabs?
• How does the engine fire detection system function?
• What color indicates EICAS engine limits?
• What is the maximum ramp weight in kilograms?
• How is the landing altitude manually set on the aircraft?
• When the L ENG FIRE switch is pressed, which complete actions occur?
• The secondary trim rate is a constant at what degree per second?
• For how long can the engine be motored (cranked)?
• Which component provides hydraulic pressure when a primary pump fails?
• What is the maximum ramp weight for the Challenger 350 aircraft?
• Which of the following is NOT a secondary flight control?
• Which areas have a fire extinguishing system on the Challenger 350?
• Which option correctly lists the four cockpit lighting zones?
• In what situation are ALT flaps needed?
• When oxygen bottles are full, what does the gauge next to the outside filler port indicate?
• Pushing the R ENGINE FIRE pushbutton annunciator arms which extinguisher bottle for discharge?
• What are routine SRSL callouts?
• True or False: Both extinguishing bottles are equipped with two squibs each.
• At what bulk fuel temperature is takeoff prohibited?
• Which system provides the inertial data used by the fuel computer during non-level flight?
• Which items are monitored by the takeoff configuration warning system?
• What causes the flight director command bars to appear on both primary flight displays?
• Which weight specification corresponds to 40,600 lb (18,416 kg)?
• While in flight, with all three generators offline, which buses are powered?
• After IRS alignment completes, where are the actual latitude and longitude displayed?
• When the engines are running at idle power, what is the danger area of the exhaust?